Tired of seeing ads? Click here to upgrade to Elite Membership!


Mathematics Forum

Reply  New Topic New Poll Mathematics -> Number Theory
Control Panel | search | Email to a Friend
Log In! | Register

Author Message / Information
illoyd






Quote | Reply |

This message was updated on 6/28/2006 3:11:09 PM by illoyd



dividing powers fermat
posted on: 6/28/2006 3:10:31 PM

Can anyone help.

If x>b and x divides b^n (n odd or may be prime) what conclusions can be drawn about the relationship of x and b.

I am particularly interested when b is even and x odd in a derivation of the fermat equation.
Euler




Quote | Reply |


dividing powers fermat
replied on: 6/29/2006 10:52:08 PM

Sorry, I'm not very well versed in number theory yet, but I will try to help. If x divides b^n this means:

b^n=kx,

and since you are interested in b being even and x being odd:

(2m)^n=k(2c+1), where c>=m

which turns into:

(2^n)(m^n)=2kc+k, so

m^n=2^(1-n)kc+k(2^-n),

but k=(b^n)/x, so

m^n=[2^(1-n)][(b^n)/x]c+(2^-n)[(b^n)/x]

m^n=[2^(1-n)]([(2^n)(m^n)]/x)c+(2^-n)([(2^n)(m^n)]/x)

m^n=(2c/x)(m^n)+(m^n)/x

therefore, letting the first RHS term be a^n and the second RHS term be d^n, you get:

m^n=d^n+a^n

which gives you the diophantine equation that fermat's is based on. I don't know if the last step is validated, as I do not have any number theory experience, but that is what seems logically to me. Hope this helps!
illoyd




Quote | Reply |


This message was updated on 7/1/2006 4:33:47 AM by illoyd

dividing powers fermat
replied on: 7/1/2006 4:33:12 AM

Thanks very much for your help.

Unfortunately the equation:
m^n=(2c/x)(m^n) + (m^n)/x

has a common non-zero term m^n in each part.

It simplifies to x=2c+1, which is where you started.

Thats maths. I am often proving x=x!

One day we will find the answers!
Euler




Quote | Reply |


dividing powers fermat
replied on: 7/1/2006 2:11:41 PM

Ah! I can't believe I didn't catch that one!! Oh well, like you said, "That's math."
Euler




Quote | Reply |


dividing powers fermat
replied on: 7/1/2006 2:26:40 PM

Okay- how about this approach:

if x divides b^n and b is even then:

(2m)^n=(k1)x, now let

m^n=[(k1)/2^n]x, so x also divides m^n; therefore:

m^n=(k2)x, where k2=[(k1)/2^n]x

so then it can be shown that:

b^n+m^n=(k1)x+(k2)x, and since they are linearly dependent, the result will be another integer raised to the nth power so:

b^n+m^n=c^n,

which gives you the diophantine equation which Fermat's is based on. Hopefully this approach is better, but, as I have said, I haven't even taken a single class on number theory, so I don't know how valid it is. Nevertheless, I hope this helps!
illoyd




Quote | Reply |


dividing powers fermat
replied on: 7/2/2006 9:32:24 AM

Thank you for that. Your solution certainly works for x odd, which is the case of interest.

Your diophantine equation leads directly from fermat's equation and b<X, m<Y and c<Z, which hopefully gives a classic infinite descent situation.

Thanks
LinkBot





Gamers Wanted is looking for people to write game reviews and post news,
if your interested please visit Gamers Wanted About Us Page




 



Contact Administrator (must be logged in)


Tired of seeing ads? Click here to upgrade to Elite Membership!


ChatArea.com Help & News Forums | Terms of Use | Contact ChatArea.com | Advertising

Powered By ChatArea.com - Get your free Society today! © Copyright 2003 Wewp!